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When an entity has a legally enforceable right to set off the recognised amounts of a financial asset and financial liability and it intends to settle on a net basis, it:


A) can write off both the asset and the liability;
B) may offset the financial asset and liability;
C) is not entitled to offset the asset and liability;
D) need not present the asset, the liability or the net amount in its financial statements.

E) All of the above
F) A) and C)

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The degree to which changes in the fair value or cash flows of a hedge item that are attributable to a hedge risk are offset by the changes in the fair value or cash flows of a hedging instrument, describes:


A) transaction exposure;
B) hedge ineffectiveness;
C) hedge effectiveness;
D) transaction variability.

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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Whitnall Limited lost $150 on a hedging instrument and had a corresponding gain on the hedged item of $100. The effectiveness range for the associated transactions is:


A) 100% - 150%;
B) 20% - 30%;
C) 0% - 15%;
D) 66% - 150%.

E) A) and B)
F) All of the above

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Company A issued convertible notes 3 years ago and accounted for them as a compound financial instrument. Complete the following: At the end of the three year period the portion of the (1) _______component that relates to the notes which have been converted (2)______- . \quad ( 1 ) \quad\quad \quad ( 2 ) a. \quad equity \quad is transferred to profit & loss b. \quad liability \quad remains as a liability c. \quad liability \quad is transferred to equity d. \quad liability \quad is transferred to profit \& loss

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C

The risk that one party to a financial instrument will fail to discharge an obligation and cause the other party to incur a financial loss is referred to as:


A) interest rate risk;
B) liquidity risk;
C) market risk;
D) credit risk.

E) All of the above
F) None of the above

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Which of the following are regarded as financial instruments: I Deposits held by a financial institution; II Ordinary shares; III Raw materials inventories; IV Property, plant and equipment. V Accounts receivable and accounts payable.


A) I, II, IV and V only;
B) II, III and IV only;
C) I, II and V only;
D) I, IV and V only.

E) B) and C)
F) A) and C)

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Which of the following items are regarded as a financial liability?


A) ordinary shares held in another entity;
B) a contract that is a non-derivative for which the entity is obliged to deliver a variable number of its own equity instruments;
C) a contractual right to exchange under potentially favourable conditions, an option to purchase shares below the market price;
D) the right of a depositor to obtain cash from a financial institution with which it has deposited cash.

E) All of the above
F) A) and B)

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Which of the following events provide objective evidence that a financial asset has been impaired: I A default in interest payments. II The borrower enters into bankruptcy. III Significant financial difficulty of the issuer. IV The downgrade of an entity's credit rating.


A) I, II and III only;
B) II, III and IV only;
C) I, III and IV only;
D) II and IV only.

E) A) and C)
F) B) and D)

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A

Callas Corporation Limited buys an option that entitles it to purchase 2000 shares in Maria Limited at $5 per share at any time in the next 3 months. The derivative financial instrument in this transaction is the:


A) shares in Callas Corporation Limited;
B) shares in Maria Limited;
C) price of the shares in Maria Limited after 3 months have elapsed;
D) option priced at $5.

E) None of the above
F) A) and C)

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The classification of a financial instrument on the Statement of Financial Position of an entity is governed by the principle of:


A) legal form;
B) net present value;
C) substance over form;
D) forfeiture.

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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When accounting for a cash flow hedge, IFRS 9 requires that hedge ineffectiveness is:


A) recorded in profit or loss;
B) separately recorded in equity;
C) recorded separately as a financial liability;
D) capitalised as a deferred asset.

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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Which of the following items is classified as a financial asset?


A) ordinary shares of the issuer;
B) loans payable (owed by the borrower) ;
C) accounts receivable;
D) inventory.

E) A) and B)
F) B) and D)

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C

Which of the following is NOT an example of a derivative financial instrument?


A) A forward exchange contract
B) A commercial bill contract
C) A futures contract
D) An option contract

E) B) and C)
F) A) and C)

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The appropriate accounting treatment for incremental costs directly attributable to an equity transaction that would otherwise have been avoided is to:


A) deduct from equity, net of tax;
B) add to equity, net of tax;
C) expense in the period incurred;
D) defer as a contingent asset.

E) None of the above
F) B) and C)

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Company A issues preference shares to Company B, the terms of which entitle party B to redeem the preference shares for cash if Company A's revenues fall below a specified level. From Company A's perspective the preference shares are:


A) an equity instrument
B) a financial liability
C) a compound financial instrument
D) a financial asset

E) None of the above
F) A) and B)

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The definition of a derivative requires which of the following characteristics to be met? I its value must change in response to a change in an underlying variable such as a specified interest rate, price or foreign exchange rate. II it must be settled on a net basis III it must require no initial net investment or an additional net investment that is smaller than would be required for other types of contracts with similar responses to changes in market factors. IV it is to be settled at a future date


A) I, II and III
B) I, III and IV
C) I, II and IV
D) II, III and IV

E) All of the above
F) None of the above

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IFRS 9 requires that on initial recognition financial liabilities must be measured at:


A) fair value;
B) fair value minus transaction costs;
C) fair value plus transaction costs;
D) discounted future net cash flows.

E) All of the above
F) A) and D)

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Which of the following is within the scope of IFRS 9?


A) a lease obligation
B) a lease renewal option within a lease agreement
C) a financial guarantee contract
D) an investment in a joint venture.

E) B) and C)
F) None of the above

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When first issued, IAS 39 was:


A) More rule-based than other AASB standards
B) Less rule-based than other AASB standards
C) Wider in scope that other AASB standards
D) Narrower in scope that other AASB standards

E) B) and C)
F) A) and B)

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To be regarded as 'highly effective' in achieving offsetting changes in fair value or cash flows, actual hedge results must be in the range:


A) 70% - 100%;
B) 80% - 125%;
C) 90% - 100%;
D) 20% - 50%.

E) A) and D)
F) B) and C)

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